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Post by sunniseeker on Oct 14, 2018 17:12:16 GMT
thank you... unfortunately I still can't find the answer to my question... what kind of sunnah is it to do the 2 rak'at of ihram? Is it sinful to omit this 2 rak'at? the slide show, as well as Nur al-Idah and other books I've checked just mention it as 'Sunnah' I just checked in my copy of 'How to Perform Hajj & Umrah' by Shaykh Nur al-Din 'Itr and he mentioned it to be sunnah muakkadah.
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Post by sunniseeker on Oct 13, 2018 18:37:24 GMT
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Post by sunniseeker on May 15, 2018 11:22:53 GMT
Assalaamu 'alaykum, As we approach Ramadan I was wondering how the taraweeh prayer is affected in this situation? As most masaajid offer their 'isha and taraweeh before 15 or 18 degrees time enters (i.e. when one or both of these times occur), would it be ok to join the salah and repeat the 'isha individually after? How about when there is perpetual twilight and 'isha time does not enter - do we still pray taraweeh and offer 'isha after nisf al layl? Wa alaykumussalam The correct view in the Hanafi madhhab is that the time for Tarawih begins after praying Isha up to dawn (Fajr). Hence, Tarawih cannot be prayed before having offered Isha salah, but can be prayed after Witr as long as it is before dawn. (Majmu'at Rasa'il Qasim ibn Qutlubugha, 261-2; Bada'i' al-Sana'i', 2:275) When Tarawih is missed for any reason and has not been prayed in its time, the correct view is that there is no qada for it. (Majmu'at Rasa'il Qasim ibn Qutlubugha, 262; Bada'i' al-Sana'i', 2:278) Furthermore, it is not allowed in the Hanafi madhhab to pray non-obligatory salahs in congregation besides the Tarawih and eclipse prayers. (al-Asl, 1:363) When "Tarawih" is prayed before its time in congregation, this would therefore not be allowed. One may pray non-obligatory salahs individually after Maghrib/before Isha. The 15 degrees time for Isha* should enter for most of the month this year. Thus, Isha should be prayed when its time enters and then as many rak'ats of Tarawih as the time allows before suhur**. * Which, according to the majority, is when the red twilight disappears - and according to several Hanafi jurists, the stronger view in the madhhab is that Isha begins at this time. ** Which, according to the majority, ends at 18 degrees solar depression or, when 18 degrees time does not enter, at nisf al-layl. JazakAllah khayran for kindly taking the time to respond, much appreciated. In my locality the 15 degrees time for 'Isha enters for the first 12 nights, so am I right in understanding that thereafter when it is performed after nisf al-layl then taraweeh shouldn't be prayed as it is dawn? If so, does that mean it's hukm has dropped due to it's cause not being present? Although your response makes perfect sense to me and is logical according to whatever limited reading I have done on the issue, and moreover your conclusions feels right within my heart, despite this I feel somewhat aggrieved that all this entails that I can't join in with the taraweeh prayers in congregation in the masjid...In the past I have done so even though I knew that praying it before 'Isha enters isn't correct and that even if considered as nafl salah, even then it is not correct to perform in congregation... It's frustrating that more masaajid are not aware of these issues or choose not to implement the correct timings. Perhaps more ulema should speak on these issues to raise awareness.
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Post by sunniseeker on May 15, 2018 9:11:11 GMT
Assalaamu 'alaykum,
As we approach Ramadan I was wondering how the taraweeh prayer is affected in this situation? As most masaajid offer their 'isha and taraweeh before 15 or 18 degrees time enters (i.e. when one or both of these times occur), would it be ok to join the salah and repeat the 'isha individually after? How about when there is perpetual twilight and 'isha time does not enter - do we still pray taraweeh and offer 'isha after nisf al layl?
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Post by sunniseeker on Sept 6, 2017 8:47:05 GMT
According to the Hanafi madhhab, qunut is made before the ruku' of the third rak'ah after raising the hands.* For evidence for this position, see: www.darultahqiq.com/hadith-proofs-for-the-hanafi-procedure-of-witr/* بلغنا أنه قنت فيها بعدما فرغ من القراءة قبل أن يركع الثالثة...قلت: فهل يرفع يديه حين يفتتح بالقنوت؟ قال: نعم، ثم يكفها (الأصل للإمام محمد، ج١ ص١٣٨ قال أبو حنيفة: القنوت فى الوتر قبل الركعة [=الركوع] الثالثة، إذا فرغ من السورة كبر ورفع يديه ثم خفضهما، ثم دعا ثم كبر فلم يرفع يديه ثم ركع. (الحجة على أهل المدينة، ج١ ص١٩٩ محمد قال أخبرنا أبو حنيفة عن حماد عن إبراهيم أن القنوت فى الوتر واجب في شهر رمضان وغيره قبل الركوع...قال محمد وبه نأخذ، يرفع يديه فى التكبيرة الأولى قبل القنوت كما يرفع يديه فى افتتاح الصلاة ثم يضعهما ويدعو، وهو قول أبي حنيفة (الآثار للإمام محمد، ج١ ص٥٧٩-٥٨٢ ولا قنوت في شيء من الصلاة غير الوتر فإنه يقنت فى السنة كلها قبل الركوع...وإذا أراد المصلي أن يقنت في وتر كبر ورفع يديه ثم أرسلهما وقنت في قول أبي حنيفة ومحمد رحمهما الله، وهو قول أبي يوسف رحمه الله الأول وقد كان في آخر عمره رأى رفع اليدين فى الدعاء فى الوتر. (مختصر الطحاوي، ص٢٨ قال أصحابنا: القنوت فى الوتر قبل الركوع. (التجريد للقدوري، ج٢ ص٨١٣ JazakAllah khayr Mufti Zameel. I have come across the above before - I was hoping more for an explanation why we don't keep our hands raised in du'a or why in the Hanafi madhab it is better to put the hands back in the original place after takbir when reciting qunut. BarakAllah fik.
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Post by sunniseeker on Sept 5, 2017 12:59:03 GMT
Assalamu ‘alaykum
Recently I have noticed people praying the final rak’ah of the Witr prayer differently to the usual Hanafi method. These people are nominally of Hanafi background and I suspect have been influenced by the ahle-hadeeth. They perform the qunut after the ruku and don’t raise the hands as per usual but instead keep their hands raised during the qunut supplication.
This may be valid in the other madhaahib but I wanted to know if it is so in the Hanafi madhab? Also, what is the basis of doing or not doing as above?
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Post by sunniseeker on May 19, 2017 8:53:18 GMT
I have seen elsewhere mentioned that Allamah Shaami states that the difference between subh kadhib and subh sadiq is 3 degrees. This has confused me somewhat as like you say the twilight is the glow that follows the sun and night glow is unrelated? I hope you can clarify this for me. From Dr. King's work, the closest angular mention of false dawn I could find to Alamah Shaami's general location and date is manuscript 970 from the Aleppo Maktabat al-Awqaf, dated to 1850. It mentions false dawn at 20 or 21 degrees, and fajr at 19 degrees. Allamah Shaami's citing of the 3 degree difference is cited here on page 2: www.irtis.org.uk/images/Prayer.pdfHowever my confusion is around the assigning of a degree to false dawn because like you say this skyglow is unrelated to the light that follows the sun during twilight. If I'm not mistaken the measurement by degrees is related to the position of the sun as it approaches the horizon - if the false dawn is unrelated to this movement how can it be measured as a function of the sun's position in respect tot the horizon?
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Post by sunniseeker on May 17, 2017 10:42:56 GMT
salaam 'alaykum,
JazakAllahu khayran for this.
I have seen elsewhere mentioned that Allamah Shaami states that the difference between subh kadhib and subh sadiq is 3 degrees. This has confused me somewhat as like you say the twilight is the glow that follows the sun and night glow is unrelated? I hope you can clarify this for me.
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Post by sunniseeker on May 16, 2017 10:12:43 GMT
I feel, with all due respect, Mufti saheb in order conform to a predetermined verdict of impermissiblity, you have concocted a definition of mawlid that nobody holds or practices. Mawlid is not institutionalised to just Rabi ul Awwal, but is just naturally given more emphasis for obvious reasons.
In doing so you have contradicted yourself e.g. mawlid in Rabi' ul Awwal is a "birthday celebration" and outside it, it is a "commemoration of his birth" and therefore permissible. Also by using terms such as "birthday celebration" you are purposefully trying to give it the impression that term holds in western culture. The same actions done outside the month are done within it, so how can one be permissible and the other not?
Also a "birthday celebration" can only be done inside Rabi' only because you are giving it the meaning this particular phrase holds in western culture - the fact is a particular event can be "celebrated" or "commemorated" at any time. So your definition isn't absolute.
Going back to the topic of the thread; you mentioned it is not a valid difference to regard it as permissible because no mujtahid imam had articulated it. Can you show where the view of not permissible has been so by a mujtahid imam?
You also mentioned that proof that qiyas can be done is required in order to make qiyas i.e. you said above:
"There is no evidence that one can make an analogy on this for other events, and establish virtue or excellence for their anniversaries".
Can you please explain this point?
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Post by sunniseeker on May 15, 2017 16:13:08 GMT
There is also evidence of recurrence of ennoblement of a specific time in that the Prophet salAllahu 'alayhi wasallam would fast on Monday's due to him being born on that blessed day, as is well known. This is proven by textual evidence. There is no evidence that one can make an analogy on this for other events, and establish virtue or excellence for their anniversaries. For instance, one cannot claim that the anniversary of the victory of Badr has any extra merit by virtue of it having been the anniversary of the victory of Badr. The same could be said of other blessed events, like the day of Hudaybiyyah or the hijrah from Makkah to Madinah. People don't generally ascribe 'extra merit' to those anniversaries, but like to remember the blessings and favours granted by Allah on these occasions, as is encouraged. So Monday has merit because in it he was born salAllahu 'alayhi wasallam, but not the month in which he was born? Regarding qiyas - is it done in the presence of textual evidence or in it's absence?
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